...Not list folks who have quoted the entire Gospel a few hundred years later. That doesn't help your case, champ.
Um, yes it does. Christian theologians and manuscripts of the first two centuries (as well as the centuries later) unanimously quote the Gospel of John as the Word of God. Where do you get the idea that any of them ever stood up and said, "This is the Gospel of John. I believe it is the inspired, authoritative, and canonical Word of God. But I don't believe 18:36. There must have been an overzealous scribe out there somewhere who tampered with what Jesus really said. So I'm taking my trusty exacto knife to all this 'My Kingdom is not of this world' stuff." That's just absurd. Here are some questions, which address the 2nd century only, not later.
1. The oldest extant fragment of a manuscript of the New Testament is the P95, dated around mid-2nd century. That fragment happens to include the very verse you don't like, John 18:36:
"Jesus answered, “My kingdom is not from this world. If my kingdom were from this world, my followers would be fighting to keep me from being handed over to the Jews. But as it is, my kingdom is not from here.”
Is it your contention that somewhere between c.95 and c.150, an unidentified overzealous scribe redacted a hypothetical original which said, "My kingdom IS of this world?" If so, how did the forgery get widely copied enough to be extant, and the original remains theoretical? Please present evidence to support your contention.
2. Tatian's Diatessaron was a harmony of the Gospels dated mid-2nd century. It includes John 18:36,
"Jesus said unto him, My kingdom is not of this world: if my kingdom were of this world, then would my servants fight, that I should not be delivered to the Jews: now my kingdom is not from hence."
Is it your contention that somewhere between c.95 and c.170, an unidentified overzealous scribe redacted the hypothetical original which said, "My kingdom IS of this world?" If so, please present evidence to support that contention. Also, why do you think Tatian included John (including 18:36) in his Diatessaron if that book (all of that book) was not already widely considered the Word of God?
3. The Gospel of John was included in the Muratorian Canon - the list of accepted and canonical books in Rome, around 180 AD. It includes 18:36. Do you believe that Rome accepted the whole Gospel as the Word of God, but not 18:36 included in it? If so, please present evidence to support your contention.
4. Irenaeus, (2nd century), in
Against Heresies, wrote:
Matthew also issued a written Gospel among the Hebrews in their own dialect, while Peter and Paul were preaching at Rome, and laying the foundations of the Church. After their departure, Mark, the disciple and interpreter of Peter, did also hand down to us in writing what had been preached by Peter. Luke also, the companion of Paul, recorded in a book the Gospel preached by him. Afterwards, John, the disciple of the Lord, who also had leaned upon His breast, did himself publish a Gospel during his residence at Ephesus in Asia.
And therefore the Gospels are in accord with these things, among which Christ Jesus is seated. For that according to John relates His original, effectual, and glorious generation from the Father, thus declaring, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” Also, “all things were made by Him, and without Him was nothing made.” For this reason, too, is that Gospel full of all confidence, for such is His person.
Given that Irenaeus forthrightly accepts the inspiration and authority of the Gospel of John, is it your contention that Irenaeus (or any other Patristic Christian theologian for that matter) ever said, "I believe John's Gospel is the Word of God, but I don't believe 18:36 is. I think there was an overzealous scribe somewhere who changed the original wording of that particular verse. I think the original said, "My Kingdom IS of this world. And so, my dear readers, ignore this verse from John's Gospel." If you believe that, please post supporting evidence here.
You need to provide sources for that specific passage where Jesus is talking about his kingdom not being of this world.
Okay. For starters...
Origen, 1st-2nd c.,
Commentary on the Gospel According to John.
We find him announcing also that, as when in response to to Pilate's question,"Are you the King of the Jews," he says, "My kingdom is not of this world; if my kingdom were of this world, my servants would strive that I should not be delivered to the Jews, but now my kingdom is not thence.
“We hold these truths to be self-evident… by the — you know — you know the thing.” - Democrat Presidential Candidate Joe Biden